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Monday, 25 April 2016

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Data Basics Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Data Basics Short Questions


Q 1. What is data?
Ans. Raw facts and figures are called data. It is used to perform certain operations in an organization. It gives the status of past activities. Data may be numerical like inventory figures, test scores, etc. Data may be non numerical like your name and address.

Q 2. What is information?
Ans. Processed data is called information. It is usually output of a process and is meaningful. The grade of a student in a particular subject in a semester precisely gives the complete information of the performance of a student.

Q 3. What is the difference between data and information?
Ans. Data is raw facts whereas information is processed form of data. Data is given to the computer for input and information is received from the computer in the form of output.

Q 4. Define data processing.
Ans. Data processing is any computer process that converts data into information or knowledge. The processing is usually assumed to be automated an running on a computer. It can also be defined "The manipulation of data to achieve some required objective is called data processing.

Q 5. What is data manipulation?
Ans. Applying different operations on data is called data manipulation. This operation include classification, calculation, sorting, and summarizing.

Q 6. Define field?
Ans. Each column of a table in relational database is called a field. It represents the attributes of the entity. In table it is represented as a column header.

Q 7. Define record.
Ans. A collection of related fields treated as a single unit is called record. If we collect different attributes of a student then it will be called student record.

Q 8. Define file.
Ans. A collection of related records treated as a single unit is called a file. If we collect the records of students then collective it will be called a student file.

Q 9. Name the file types from usage point of view.
Ans. Types of files from usage point of view
  • Master file
  • Transaction file
  • Back up file

Q 10. Name the file types from function point of view.
Ans.  Types of files from function point of view.
  • Program files
  • Data files

Q 11. What is program file?
Ans. A file that contains software instructions. The source files and executable files are examples of program file.

Q 12. What do you mean by file organization?
Ans. The physical arrangement of records of a file on secondary storage devices is called file organization. There are a lot of methods to store files on secondary storage. All the methods have their own advantages and disadvantages.

Q 13. Name different types of file organization?
Ans. Different types of file organization
  • Sequential files
  • Direct or random access files
  • Indexed sequential files

Q 14. What are sequential files?
Ans. In sequential files records are stored sequentially. These files store data as it arrives one after another in the sequence. These files take more time to store data. The best reason for using sequential files is there degree of portability to other program. The drawback to sequential files is that you only have sequential access to your data.

Q 15. What are direct or random access files?
Ans. In random files records are accessed directly without going through the preceding records. Record in this type of file is stored on a calculate address. In random file the data is stored exactly as it appears in memory, thus saving processing time.

Q 16. What are indexed sequential files?
Ans. The data in this type of file can be accessed sequentially as well as randomly based on a key value. As records are stored in the form of key-pointer pair in the indexed file, therefore, it requires more space on the disk as compared to random files. It's processing is as fast as random files.

Q 17. What is an index?
Ans. A database index is a data structure that improves the speed of operations on a database table. It is a table created by system developers or DBA containing the key attributes of the table for which the index is created. Indexes can be created using one or more columns of a database table, providing the bases for both rapid random lookups and efficient access of ordered records.

Q 18. Define database?
Ans. A database is a structured collection of records or data that is stored in a computer so that a program can consult it to answer queries. The records retrieved in answer to queries become information that can be used to make decisions. The term database refers to the collection of related records or related data sets or files, and the software  which is used to manipulate the database is database management system or DBMS.

Q 19.What is database management system?
Ans. A collection of programs that enables you to store, modify and extract information from a database. There are many different types of DBMS, ranging from small systems that run on personal computers to huge systems that run on mainframes. The DBMS is used for large and medium sized organizations having different types of files for different purposes.

Q 20. What is data dictionary?
Ans. DBMS uses a file to store the data definition or description of the structure of database is called data dictionary i.e. data about database. It holds the name, type, range of values, source, and authorization for access for each data elements in the organization's files and databases.

Q 21. What do you mean by consistency constraint?
Ans. These are the rules that must be followed to enter data in the database e.g. in name field there must not be a numerical value, in date of birth field there must be a date.

Q 22. What is meant by data independence?
Ans. Data independence means that data and application programs are separate from each other. Physical implementation of data is hidden from application program. DBMS lies between the application program and database.

Q 23. Name some large databases developed.
Ans. NADRA, Google, VISA and Amazon books database are a few commonly known large databases around the world.

Q 24. Write down any two disadvantages of database system.
Ans.   Disadvantages of database system
  • Additional training is required.
  • Additional hardware cost.
  • Additional software cost.

Q 25. What are the activities performed on data?
Ans. The user of database normally has the following facilities.
  • Adding new files to the database.
  • Removing existing files from the database.
  • Inserting new data into the existing files.
  • Retrieving data from existing files.
  • Updating data in existing files.
  • Deleting data from existing files.

Q 26. Name the four major components of database system.
Ans.  Four major components of database system
Data:
  • Raw facts that become information after processing.
Hardware:
The physical components of a system it includes:
  • Input / Output (I/O) Devices.
  • Primary storage
  • Secondary storage devices
  • I/O channels
  • Processor.
Software:
All kinds of programs which includes:
  • User / System software
  • Utilities
Personnel:
People who involve with the system:
  • Programmer / Analyst
  • End Users
  • Database Administrator.

Written by: Asad Hussain & Sana Hussain

Saturday, 16 April 2016

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Database Design Process Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 3 Database Design Process Short Questions


Q 1. Define analysis.
Ans. A process of studying the existing system is known as analysis. The analysis also determines what should take place in the new system. It is very important activity for the development of database system. The person responsible for the requirement analysis is called "Analyst".

Q 2. What is the importance of project planning?
Ans. Project planning is part of project management. Initially the project scope is defined and the appropriate methods for completing the project are determined. Following this steps, the duration for the various tasks necessary to complete the work listed and grouped into a work breakdown structure. Then the necessary resources can be estimated and costs for each activity can be allocated to each resource, giving the total project cost.

Q 3. What is data modelling?
Ans. The identification of data objects and their relationships to other data objects. Data modelling is often the first step in database design. Designers first create a conceptual model of how data items relate to each other. Data modelling involves a progression from conceptual model to logical model to physical schema.

Q 4. Define cardinality.
Ans. The number of entity occurrences of first entity associated with one or more occurrences of the second entity is known as cardinality. It is expressed as one or many e.g. a country can have many cities but a country can have only one capital.

Q 5. Define Modality.
Ans. Modality defines whether the participation of an entity in a relationship is mandatory or optional. If a relationship has a cardinality of zero, then is is an optional relationship. If relationship has cardinality of at least one the relationship is mandatory.

Q 6. What is ab E-R diagram?
Ans. An entity relationship E-R diagram is a specialized graphic that illustrates the interrelationships between entities in a database. ER diagram often use symbols to represent three different types of information.

Q 7. What is logical database design?
Ans. It is the process of mapping the conceptual model to the structures of target DBMS. If the target database is relational then it will be mapped on normalized relations.

Q 8. What is physical database design?
Ans. Physical database design is the last step of database design. The objective of physical database design is to implement the database as a set of stored, records, files, indexes and other data structures. These data structures provide performance and also ensure data integrity, security and recoverability.

Q 9. What is meant by centralized database distribution?
Ans. In centralized database all the data is stored at single location. It is easy but have a few disadvantages. Data communications may be high in some cases. Data is not readily accessible by remote users. If central server fails, whole database fails.

Q 10. What is partitioned database distribution?
Ans. In partition distribution data is divided into fragments and these fragments of data are placed at different computers. It is more accessible than centralized database strategy.

Q 11. What is replicated database distribution?
Ans. Full copy of database is stored on some other computer. Any change in parent computer is replicated to the others. In this strategy more storage is required. There can be a huge communication cost while replication. Frequent synchronization is also required.

Written by: Asad Hussain

Monday, 11 April 2016

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 4 Data Integrity and Normalization Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 4 Data Integrity and Normalization Short Questions


Q 1. What is meant by entity integrity?
Ans. It is a constraint on entity. Entity integrity is an integrity rule which states that every table must have a primary key and that the column or columns chosen to be the primary key should be unique and not null. A direct consequences of this integrity rule is that duplicate are forbidden in a table. If each value of a primary key must be unique no duplicate rows can logically appear in a table. This NOT NULL characteristic of a primary key ensures that a value can be used to identify all rows in a table.

Q 2. What is referential integrity? 
Ans. It is a constraint on foreign key. If a foreign exists in a relation then either the foreign key value must match the primary key value of some tuple in its parent table or the foreign key value must be completely NULL.

Q 3. What is redundancy?
Ans. Redundancy appears when same data values are stored more than once in a table. It is also called redundancy if the same values are stored in more than one table.

Q 4. What is normalization?
Ans. Normalization is s process of converting complex data structures into simple and stable data structures. It is a technique for reviewing the list of entities and their attributes to ensure that attributes are stored from where they belong. In other words we can say that it is a process of analyzing the dependencies of attributes within entities.

Q 5. What is repeating group?
Ans. Repeating group is a set of one or more data items that may occur a variable number of times in a tuple.

Q 6. What are database anomalies?
Ans. These are certain situations created when one or more records are deleted, modified or inserted in the database and the databases goes into an inconsistent state.

Q 7. What is insertion anomaly?
Ans. Insertion anomaly occurs when a new record is inserted in the relation. In this anomaly user cannot insert a fact about an entity until he has an additional fact about another entity.

Q 8. What is deletion anomaly?
Ans. The deletion anomaly occurs when a record is deleted. In this anomaly the deletion of a record automatically deletes the fact of another entity.

Q 9. What is modification anomaly?
Ans. The modification anomaly occurs when the record is updated in the relation. In this case the modification in the value of specific attribute requires modification in all records in which that value occurs.

Q 10. What is partial dependency?
Ans. A type of dependency in which one or more non-key attributes are functionally dependent on a part of primary key.

Q 11. What is transitive dependency?
Ans. The transitive dependency is a type of functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes. It exists if a non-key attribute depends on any other non-key attribute.

Q 12. What is integrity constraint?
Ans. Integrity means the correctness and consistency of the data. Integrity is usually expressed in terms of certain constraints which are the consistency rules  that the database is not permitted to violate. Integrity is also concerned with the quality of data. Integrity is maintained with the help of integrity constraints. These constraints are the rules that are designed to keep data consistent and correct.

Q 13. What is 1st Normal form?
Ans. A relation is in 1st normal form if and only if all underlying domain contain atomic values only. Each cell should contain only one value and relation does not contain any repeating group.

Q 14. What is 2nd Normal form?
Ans. A relation is in 2nd normal form if it is in 1st normal form and every non-key attribute is fully functionally dependent on the primary key. All on-key attribute must depend on primary key.
Following are a few conditions for 2nd normal form.
  • The primary key consist of only one attribute.
  • No non-key attributes exist in the relation.
  • Every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key.

Q 15. What is 3rd Normal form?
Ans. A relation is in 3rd normal form if it is in 2nd normal form and no transitive dependencies exist. Transitive dependency is a functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes of a relation.

Written by: Asad Hussain

Sunday, 10 April 2016

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 5 Introduction to Microsoft Access Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 5 Introduction to Microsoft Access Short Questions




Q 1. What is Microsoft Access?
Ans. It is one of the most popular and powerful DBMS. It provides the features to the users to create and maintain databases. We can create tables, forms, queries and reports using MS Access.

Q 2. What is wizard?
Ans. A wizard is a helper application that makes performing complex tasks easier. A wizard has a simple decision in a window, which has back and next buttons underneath. When you have filled in the required data, you click the next button to go to the next window, or you can click the back button to change your previous decision.

Q 3. What is menu bar?
Ans. It is the second bar from top. It consists of many words. Each word on this bar represents a menu. Every word on this bar also has a character underlined. This underlined character represents the short cut key combination for that particular menu.

Q 4. What is database object?
Ans. A component of database system is known as database object. These database objects are used to manage data.

Q 5. What is a table?
Ans. Table is a collection of rows and columns. All the intersection points of rows and columns are called cells. In these cells data can be stored. Each column of table represents a field. Each field is specified to store a particular type of data. Table can be viewed in different ways but most commonly used are datasheet view and design view.

Q 6. What is a query?
Ans. Query is a database object used to get data from the database. In query we can specify a certain criteria to get the required data. The actual objective of data storage is that it can be retrieved when ever required. Using query object data can also be deleted and updated.

Q 7. What is a form?
Ans. The window that is used to enter data into the database is called a form. Using form data can be entered, edited and even viewed in Microsoft Access. Data entered in forms directly goes to the tables. Forms are always made after table creation. The fields on forms are linked to the table fields.

Q 8.  What are reports?
Ans. Reports are database objects used to represents queried data in a presentable format. Not all but most of the RDBMS provides this facility to its users. Reports can be generated on the basis of tables and queries. We can apply formatting on the reports to make them more presentable and understandable.

Q 9. What is an IDE?
Ans. IDE stands for integrated development environment. It is a simple and easy way to do a task. It presents graphical objects like buttons, icons and menus to perform certain operations. Using IDE a new user and programmer can easily do their jobs. MS Access also provides the same facility for its users.

Written by: Asad Hussain

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 6 Table and Query Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 6 Table and Query Short Questions


Q 1. What is a table?
Ans. Table is a collection of rows and columns. Each intersection of row and column is called a cell. Cell is the place where data is placed. Table is the fundamental object of relational database. Table is also known as relation. Each row represents a tuple and each column represents an attribute of an entity. Table or relation itself represents an entity.

Q 2. What is meant by degree of relation?
Ans. The number of fields of a relation is called the degree of the relation. A table's degree is specified at the time of creation. But as a rule it can be changed at any time. Change in degree of a table may cause data loss.

Q 3. What is meant by the cardinality of the relation?
Ans. The number of records in a table is called the cardinality of that table. Cardinality of a table changes as new records are added or previous records are deleted. For example a table having 40 rows/records has cardinality 40.

Q 4. What are two two table views available in Microsoft Access?
Ans. Design view and Datasheet view.

Q 5. What is Test data type?
Ans. It is the default data type of a field in MS Access. It can contain text or combination of text and numbers, as well as numbers that don't require calculations, such as  phone numbers. Its size is 255 characters or the length set by the FieldSize property, whichever is less. Microsoft Access does not reserve space for unused portions of a text field.

Q 6. What is Memo data type?
Ans. A text type field that can contain more than 64000 characters. It is used for long description.

Q 7. What is Number data type?
Ans. This field is used to store numeric data for mathematical calculations. Size of this data type can be 1. 2. 4 or 8 bytes (16 bytes if the FieldSize property is set to Replication ID).

Q 8. What is AutoNumber data type?
Ans. A unique sequential (incremented by 1) number or random number assigned by Microsoft Access whenever a new record is added to a table. AutoNumber fields can't be updated. Its size is 4 bytes.

Q 9. What is the use of Default view?
Ans. In some cases, the value of all records in a certain field is same. A default value can be set in this case. The user does not need to type the same value again and again. The property set the default value is used to set default value for a field.

Q 10. What is sorting?
Ans. Arrangement of data in a particular sequence is called sorting. The sequence can be in ascending or descending order.

Q 11. What is referential integrity?
Ans. Referential integrity is a system of rules that ensures that relationship between records in related tables are valid and that you don't accidentally delete or change related data. To enforce referential integrity both tables must have at least one common field, which have same data type and size.

Q 12. What is a query?
Ans. A query is a question that requires some data from the database. A query is created by specifying fields to display their from a table or another query. It can also specify condition for extracting data. Queries select records from one or more tables in a database.

Q 13. What is a join?
Ans. A query that extracts data from multiple tables is called join. It uses the relationship of tables to get data.

Q 14. What are wildcards?
Ans. Wildcards is a special symbol that is used in queries to search data. Some important wildcards are *, ? and #. Wildcards characters are meant to be used with fields that have the Text data type. You can sometimes use them successfully with other data types, such as dates.

Q 15. Define criteria in a query?
Ans. A condition used to limit the number of rows extracted from database is called criteria. For example, instead of viewing all the suppliers that your company uses, you can view just suppliers form China. To do this, you specify criteria that limits the results to records whose Country field is "China".

Written by: Asad Hussain

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 7 Microsoft Access Forms and Reports Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 7 Microsoft Access Forms and Reports Short Questions


Q 1. What is a form?
Ans. A window that consists of visual components for input and displays data is called form. A form is constructed from a collection of individual design elements. These elements are called controls. The common elements are text boxes, labels, check boxes etc, these elements are used for different purposes.

Q 2. Write a few uses of Form?
Ans. Form is used to add data in the database. It is used to delete data from the database. Using form data can included in the database. Data can be viewed using forms. Data can also be searched with the help of forms. Forms are also used as a custom dialog box that accepts user input and carries out an action based on the input.

Q 3. What is a sub form?
Ans. The sub form is a form that is placed in a parent form. The parent form is called the main form. Sub form is also called child form. It is useful for the tables when they have relationship of one to many. The table having foreign key is used for sub-form.

Q 4. What is conditional formatting? 
Ans. The conditional formatting is a special  type of formatting. This formatting depends on the control's value and can be added to text boxes, lists and combo boxes.

Q 5. What is a report?
Ans. Reports are the output of database application. The user can generate different types of reports by manipulating the database.

Q 6. What is linking?
Ans. The process of linking in MS Access creates a link to an object in another database table. In this method table is not copied from its original location but just linked.

Q 7. What is a switch board?
Ans. A switchboard is essentially a Microsoft Access form that allows you to facilitate navigation or perform tasks within your database application. This form is basically a customized menu that contain user-defined commands, using either buttons, labels, images or hyperlinks, that involve actions that will automatically carry out tasks for you such as opening other forms, naming queries or printing reports.

Q 8. What is keyboard shortcuts?
Ans. Keyboard shortcuts are the combinations of keys that are used to perform different tasks. They can save time and effort.

Q 9. What is input mask?
Ans. An input mask controls the value of a cell to store it into a specific format e.g. a database required to store a date field in a dd/mm/yy format. It will be represented with input mask __/__/__.

Q 10. Define tabular form briefly?
Ans. In tabular forms multiple records are displayed with fields in columns and records in rows. Each row represents a record. It is best for the situation when you want to display a few records and of narrow fields and you want to see several records at the same time.

Q 11. Define columnar form?
Ans. Form field and label are displayed side by side  in columnar form. In this type of form only one value is displayed at a time. Columnar form provides a record navigation bar to traverse through records.

Q 12. Define Datasheet form?
Ans.  A datasheet form displays data in datasheet view, Each row displays one record at a time. Datasheet form provides record navigation bar to navigate through different records. This type of form is often used for the basis of sub form.

Q 13. What is a list box?
Ans. It is a type of text box. Multiple values can be associated with list box and more than one value can be displayed and selected at the same time.

Q 14. What is a combo box?
Ans. It is a type text box. Multiple values can be associated with combo box but only one value can be displayed and selected at a time.

Q 15. What is a switch board?
Ans. It is a type of form used to display buttons linked to different database objects. These buttons are used to open, close, or modify those objects.

Written by: Asad Hussain

Friday, 8 April 2016

FSc ICS Notes Part 2 Math Pairing For Board Examination

FSc ICS Notes Part 2 Math Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

Two MCQ from Chapter 1
Five MCQ from Chapter 2
Six MCQ from Chapter 3
Two MCQ from Chapter 4
One MCQ from Chapter 5
Two MCQ from Chapter 6
Two MCQ from Chapter 7
(Expected)

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (25 out of 37)

Question No 2: (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 1
                          Chapter 2
                         
Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 2
                          Chapter 3
                         
Question No 4: (9 out of 13)
                          Chapter 4
                          Chapter 5
                          Chapter 6
                          Chapter 7                    

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: (a) Chapter 1
                         (b) Chapter 2
 
Question No 6: (a) Chapter 3
                         (b) Chapter 4
 
Question No 7: (a) Chapter 3
                         (b) Chapter 5

Question No 8: (a) Chapter 6
                         (b) Chapter 7

Question No 9: (a) Chapter 6
                         (b) Chapter 7



Written by: Asad Hussain

Wednesday, 6 April 2016

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 2 Basic Concepts and Terminology Short Questions

ICS Notes Computer Science Part 2 Chapter 2 Basic Concepts and Terminology Short Questions


Q 1. Define relation.
Ans. In relational database the table in which data is stored is called a relation. Collection of rows and column is called table. Each intersection of a row and column is called cell. Table contains the descriptive information about an entity. Table is also called relation. Each file in a file management system corresponds to a table in database management system.

Q 2. What is an Entity?
Ans. Anything about which we want to store data is called entity. It can be a person, place or event etc. Entity always has a unique name with in a domain.

Q 3. What is the use of views?
Ans. Views are virtual table used to keep data safe and secure from unauthorized access. Unlike ordinary table in a relational database, a view is not a part of physical schema. It is dynamic, virtual table computed from data in the database. Changing the data in a table alters the data shown in view.

Q 4. What is a key?
Ans. A key field is a field or set of fields of a database table which together form a unique identifier for a database record. The aggregate of these fields is usually referred to simply as "the key". A key field also defines searches.

Q 5. Define primary key.
Ans. In a relation the attribute or a combination of attributes that uniquely identifies a row or a record. e.g. A social security number, ISBN, student roll number, etc.

Q 6. Define secondary key.
Ans. A secondary key is a non-unique field that is used as a secondary or alternate key. Some times records are required to be accessed by a field other than the primary key. In these situations another key that is used is called secondary key or alternate key.

Q 7. Define candidate key.
Ans. There can be more than one keys or key combinations that qualify to be selected as primary key. In a relation there can be only one primary key at a time. Rest of the keys or key combinations are called candidate keys.

Q 8. Define composite key.
Ans. Composite key consists of two or more than two fields. Composite key is also designated as a primary key. It is created in a situation when no single field fulfills the property of uniqueness. To make unique more than one field are combined and used as primary key.

Q 9. Define sort key.
Ans. A field or a set of fields in a record that dictates the sequence of the file according to our requirement. For example the sort keys STATE and NAME arrange the table data alphabetically by name within state. STATE is the major sort key, and NAME is the minor sort key.

Q 10. What is the use of index file?
Ans. Indexes are stored in index file. DBMS uses index files to speed up the sorting and searching operations.

Q 11. Who is end user?
Ans. It is the person who uses the database management system for his need. He must have knowledge of information technology. He does not need to have the detail knowledge of the computer system. He should be aware of the usage details of the software he intends to use.

Q 12. Who is data administrator?
Ans. The DA department is responsible for the definition, organization, supervision and protection of data in order to provide good quality, shareable and accessible data throughout the enterprise. The Data Administrator manages a staff that is responsible for establishing and implementing the Data Administration Program.

Q 13. Who is database administrator?
Ans. A database administrator (DBA) is a person who is responsible for the environmental aspects of a database. In general, these include:
  • Recoverability: Creating and testing backups.
  • Integrity: Verifying or helping to verify data integrity.
  • Security: Defining and/or implementing access controls to the data.
  • Availability: Ensuring maximum up time.
  • Performance: Ensuring maximum performance given budgetary constraints.
  • Development and testing support: Helping programmers and engineers to efficiently utilize the database.

Q 14. List two properties of a relation.
Ans. Properties of a relation.
  • It has unique column names.
  • The order of column is insignificant.
  • The order of row is insignificant.

Q 15. Discuss the data manipulation in DBMS system?
Ans. Data manipulation of database management system is different from file management system. In database management system.
  • Data is stored in relation or tables.
  • A database may have more than one relation with unique names.
  • Relations in a database relate to each other using primary and foreign keys.
  • DBMS uses index to quickly access the data stored in relation.
  • Database query language i.e. SQL is used for data manipulation in database. 

Written by: Asad Hussain

Sunday, 3 April 2016

FSc Notes Part 2 Biology Pairing For Board Examination

FSc Notes Part 2 Biology Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

One MCQ from every chapter from Chapter 17 + 19 + 20 + 22 to 27
Two MCQ from Chapter 15 + 16 + 18 + 21

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (22 out of 33)

Question No 2:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 15 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 16 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 19 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 21 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 24 (2) Two Short Questions

Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 17 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 18 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 23 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 26 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 27 (2) Two Short Questions
                         
Question No 4:  (6 out of 9)
                          Chapter 20 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 22 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 25 (3) Three Short Questions


 

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: Chapter 17 + 25
Question No 6: Chapter 15 + 27
Question No 7: Chapter 16 + 24
Question No 8: Chapter 18 + 20
Question No 9: Chapter 19 + 22

Written by: Asad Hussain

Saturday, 2 April 2016

FSc ICS Notes Part 1 Math Pairing For Board Examination

FSc ICS Notes Part 1 Math Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

One MCQ from every chapter from Chapter 4, 5, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14
Two MCQ from Chapter 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (25 out of 37)

Question No 2: (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 1 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 2 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 3 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 4 (3) Three Short Questions

                         
Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 5 (1) One Short Questions
                          Chapter 6 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 7 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 8 (3) Three Short Questions
                         
Question No 4: (9 out of 13)
                          Chapter 9 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 10 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 11 (1) One Short Questions
                          Chapter 12 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 13 (1) One Short Questions
                          Chapter 14 (2) Two Short Questions

                        

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: (a) Chapter 2
                         (b) Chapter 3
 
Question No 6: (a) Chapter 4
                         (b) Chapter 5
 
Question No 7: (a) Chapter 6
                         (b) Chapter 8

Question No 8: (a) Chapter 9
                         (b) Chapter 10

Question No 9: (a) Chapter 12
                         (b) Chapter 13



Written by: Asad Hussain

Friday, 1 April 2016

FSc Notes Part 1 Chemistry Pairing For Board Examination

FSc Notes Part 1 Chemistry Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

One MCQ from every chapter from Chapter 2, 7, 9, 10, 11
Two MCQ from Chapter 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (22 out of 33)

Question No 2: (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 1 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 2 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 3 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 8 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 9 (3) Three Short Questions

                         
Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 4 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 5 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 9 (1) One Short Questions
                          Chapter 10 (3) Three Short Questions
                         
Question No 4: (6 out of 9)
                          Chapter 6 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 7 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 11 (3) Three Short Questions
                        

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: Chapter 1 + 4
Question No 6: Chapter 3 + 5
Question No 7: Chapter 6 + 7
Question No 8: Chapter 8 + 11
Question No 9: Chapter 9 + 10

Numerical Problems: Chapter 1 + 8 

Written by: Asad Hussain

ICS Notes Part 1 Computer Science Pairing For Board Examination

ICS Notes Part 1 Computer Science Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

One MCQ from every chapter from Chapter  7, 10
Two MCQ from Chapter 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
Five MCQ from Chapter 5

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (22 out of 33)

Question No 2: (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 1 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 2 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 3 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 6 (3) Three Short Questions

Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 5 (8) Eight Short Questions
                          Chapter 8 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 9 (2) Two Short Questions
                         
Question No 4: (6 out of 9)
                          Chapter 4 (5) Five Short Questions
                          Chapter 7 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 10 (2) Two Short Questions
                        

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: Chapter 1
Question No 6: Chapter 2
Question No 7: Chapter 3
Question No 8: Chapter 5
Question No 9: Chapter 6

Written by: Asad Hussain

FSc ICS Notes Part 1 Physics Pairing For Board Examination

FSc ICS Notes Part 1 Physics Pairing For Board Examination


Objective Portion


Multiple Choice Questions: (17)

One MCQ from every chapter from Chapter 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 9, 10
Two MCQ from Chapter 3, 11
Three MCQ from Chapter 5, 8

Subjective Portion


Section No 1 Short Question: (22 out of 33)

Question No 2:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 1 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 2 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 3 (4) Four Short Questions
                          Chapter 6 (1) One Short Questions
                         
Question No 3:  (8 out of 12)
                          Chapter 4 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 5 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 7 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 8 (3) Three Short Questions
                         
Question No 4:  (6 out of 9)
                          Chapter 9 (3) Three Short Questions
                          Chapter 10 (2) Two Short Questions
                          Chapter 11 (4) Four Short Questions
                        

Section No 2 Long Question: (3 out of 5)

Question No 5: Chapter 2 + 3
Question No 6: Chapter 4 + 5
Question No 7: Chapter 6 + 11
Question No 8: Chapter 7 + 8
Question No 9: Chapter 9 + 10

Written by: Asad Hussain

FSc Notes Biology Part 2 Chapter 23 Biotechnology Short Questions

FSc Notes Biology Part 2 Chapter 23 Biotechnology Short Questions


Q 1. What is the use of genetically engineered bacteria?
Ans.
Genetically engineered bacteria have been used to clean up environmental pollutants, increase the fertility of soil and kill insect pests.

Q 2. What are the restrictions enzymes?
Ans.
There are natural enzymes of bacteria, which they use for their own protection against viruses. They are called restriction enzymes because they restrict the growth of enzyme.

Q 3. Why transgenic animals are cloned?
Ans.
Transgenic animals are cloned in order to obtain the product in large quantity.

Q 4. Which enzyme is Taq polymerase?
Ans.
DNA polymerase used is temperature - insensitive (thermostable) extracted from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which lives in hot springs. Commonly, this enzyme is known as Taq polymerase.

Q 5. How transgenic animals are developed?
Ans.
Techniques have been developed to insert genes into the eggs of animals. It is possible to micro inject foreign genes into eggs by hand, but another method uses vortex mixing. The eggs are placed in an agitator with DNA and silicon - carbide needles, and the needles make tiny holes through which the DNA can enter. When these eggs are fertilized, the resulting offsprings are transgenic animals.

Q 6. From which animal, antithrombin III is produced?
Ans.
Antithrombin III, for preventing blood clot during surgery, is currently being produced by a herd of goats, and clinical trials have begun.

Q 7. How many methods are used for gene therapy? Name Them?
Ans.
There are two main methods used for gene therapy:
     i) Ex-vivo.      ii) In-vivo.

Q 8. How transgenic animals that secrete a product are often cloned?
Ans.
After enucleated eggs have been injected with 2n nuclei of adult cells, they can be coaxed (persuaded or induced gradually) to begin development. The offspring have the genotype and phenotype of the adult that donated the nuclei; therefore, the adult has been cloned.

Q 9. What is Dolly?
Ans.
In 1997, scientists at the Roslin Institute in Scotland produced a cloned sheep called Dolly.

Q 10. When recombinant DNA technology is used and when PCR?
Ans.
Recombinant DNA technology is sued when a very large quantity of a gene is required. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to create a lesser number of copies within a laboratory test tube.

Q 11. How genes can be isolated from chromosomes?
Ans.
Genes can be isolated from the chromosomes by cutting the chromosomes on the flanking sites of the gene using special enzymes known as restriction endonucleases.

Q 12. What is complementary DNA?
Ans.
The gene of choice can also be synthesized in the laboratory from messenger RNA, using reverse transcriptase. This DNA molecule is called complementary DNA (cDNA).

Q 13. What are Palindromic sequences?
Ans.
Bacteria produces a variety of such restriction enzymes, which cut the DNA at very specific sites characterized by specific sequence of four to six nucleotides arranged symmetrically in the reverse order. such sequences are known as palindromic sequences.

Q 14. What are Sticky ends?
Ans.
The single stranded but complementary ends of the two DNA molecules are called "sticky ends" because they can bind by complementary base pairing.

Q 15. What is vector?
Ans.
A vector is the means by which recombinant DNA is introduced into a host cell. One common type of vector is a plasmid.

Q 16. What are plasmids?
Ans.
Plasmids are natural extra chromosomal circular DNA molecules which carry genes for antibiotic resistance and fertility etc. One of the plasmids discovered earlier PSC 101 has antibiotic resistance gene for tetracycline, whereas PSR 322 has antibiotic resistance genes for tetracycline as well as ampicillin.

Q 17. What is the use of DNA ligase?
Ans.
The gene of interest (insulin) is the joined with the sticky ends produced after cutting the plasmid with the help of another special enzyme known as DNA ligase. This enzymes seals the foreign piece of DNA into the vector.

Q 18. What is recombinant DNA or chimaeric DNA?
Ans.
When the two different  pieces of DNA have been jointed together, it is known as recombinant DNA or chimaeric DNA.

Q 19. What is clone?
Ans.
A clone can be a large number of molecules (i.e. cloned genes) or cell (i.e. cloned bacteria) or organisms that are identical to an original specimen.

Q 20. What is a genome and genomic library?
Ans.
A genome is a full set of genes of an individual. A genomic library is a collection of bacterial or bactriophage clones, each clone containing a particular segment of DNA from the source cell.

Q 21. What is probe?
Ans.
A probe is a single stranded nucleotide sequence that will hybridize (pair) into a certain piece of DNA.

Q 22. What is the polymerase chain reaction or PCR?
Ans.
The PCR is used to create millions of copies of a single gene or any specific piece of DNA quickly in a test tube. Kary B. Mullis developed the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in 1983.

Q 23. Where from PCR took its name? Why is called chain reaction?
Ans.
PCR takes its name from DNA polymerase, the enzyme that carries out DNA replication in a cell. It is considered a chain reaction because DNA polymerase will carry out replication over and over again, until there are millions of copies of the desired DNA.

Q 24. What is DNA Finger printing?
Ans.
DNA Finger printing is a method of identification that compares fragments of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Q 25. What is gel-electrophoresis?
Ans.
It is the process by which the fragments of DNA can be separated according to their lengths, and the result is a number of bands that are so close together that they appear as a smear. However, the use of probes for genetic markers produces a distinctive pattern that can be recorded on x-ray film.

Q 26. What is gene sequencing?
Ans.
In DNA or gene sequencing, scientists create many copies of a single-stranded DNA fragment that will be used to synthesize a new DNA strand. Then these will be used to determine sequence of nucleotides.

Q 27. What are various methods of gene or DNA sequencing?
Ans. 1. Snager' method.    2. Maxam-Gilbert method.

Q 28. What is Sanger's method?
Ans.
In this method dideoxy ribonuleoside triphosphates are used to terminate into DNA synthesis at different sites.

Q 29. What is Maxam-Gilbert method?
Ans.
In this method DNA threads are chemically cut into pieces of different sizes.

Q 30. What is the use of dideoxy method?
Ans.
In order to separate DNA pieces of different sizes on gel, dideoxy method is used.

Q 31. Name different organisms and organelles whose genomes have been sequenced?
Ans.
It includes plant chloroplasts and animal mitochondria, large numbers of bacteria, many of the yeasts, a nematode worm, Drosophila, the model plant Arabidopsis, the mouse and human.

Q 32. What is the purpose of primary goal of Human Genome Project?
Ans.
The Human Genome Project is massive effort to map the human chromosomes. The genes along the length of each type of chromosome are sequenced and then base pairs are found.

Q 33. What are biotechnology?
Ans.
The products produced by genetically engineered organisms are called biotechnology products. Today bacteria, plants and animals are genetically engineered to produced biotechnology products.

Q 34. What are transgenic organisms?
Ans.
Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called transgenic organisms.

Q 35. What are bioreactors?
Ans.
Bioreactors are large vats in which bacteria reproduce when recombinant DNA technology is used to produce them.

Q 36. Name some biotechnology product produced by bacteria?
Ans.
Biotechnology products produced by bacteria, such as insulin, human growth hormone, produced by bacteria, such as insulin, human growth hormone, tissue plasminogen activator, haemophilia factor VIII, and hepatitis are now in the market.

Q 37. What are Biofilters?
Ans.
The transgenic organisms used to prevent airborne chemical pollutants from being released into the air are said to be biofilters. For example use of such bacteria in industry.

Q 38. What are protoplasts?
Ans.
The plant cells that have had the cell wall removed are called protoplasts.

Q 39. Give two advantages of transgenic plants?
Ans. i)
Resistant to pests and herbicides.
        ii) Improvement of dietary contents.

Q 40. Give two advantages of transgenic plants?
Ans. i)
Bovine growth hormone.
        ii) Producing larger animals.

Q 41. Define gene therapy?
Ans.
Gene therapy is the insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder.

Q 42. What is Ex-vivo gene therapy?
Ans.
In ex-vivo gene therapy, normal gene is give to certain cells of the patient, outside the body of the patient and then these cells are returned to the patient.

Q 43. What is the method of ex-vivo gone therapy?
Ans.
Bone marrow stem cells are removed from the blood and infected with retrovirus (RNA virus) that carries a normal gene for the enzyme then the cells are returned to the patient.

Q 44. What is in-vivo gene therapy?
Ans.
In in-vivo gene therapy, patients are directly given normal genes in one way or the other.

Q 45. What is familial hypercholesterrolemia?
Ans.
It is a condition that develops when liver cells lack a receptor for removing cholesterol from the blood. The high levels of blood cholesterol make the patient subject to fatal heart attack at a young age.

Q 46. What is Cystic fibrosis?
Ans.
Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of the chloride ion. Patients often die due to numerous infections of the respiratory tract.

Q 47. How gene therapy has been used for the treatment of cancer?
Ans.
In clinical trials researchers have given genes to cancer patient that either make healthy cells more tolerant of chemotherapy or make tumours more vulnerable to it. Once the bone marrow stem cells  were protected it was possible to increase the level of chemotherapy to kill the cancer cells.

Q 48. How gene therapy has been used for the treatment of coronary artery angioplasty?
Ans.
The balloon catheter is coated with a plasmid that contains a gene for vascular endothelial growth factor. The expression of the gene. Which promotes the proliferation of blood vessels to bypass the obstructed area, has been observed in at least one patient.

Q 49. What is tissue culture?
Ans.
Tissue culture is the growth of a tissue in an artificial liquid culture medium.

Q 50. Plant cells are said to be totipotent. What do you mean by this?
Ans.
Plant cells are totipotent which means that each cell has the full genetic potential of the organism and therefore a single cell could become a complete plant.

Q 51. What is Micro-propagation?
Ans.
Tissue culture techniques have by now led to micro-propagation, a commercial method of producing thousands, even millions of identical seedlings in limited amount of space.

Q 52. What is Meristem culture?
Ans.
It is used to accomplish micro-propagation. If the correct proportions of auxins and cytokinin are added to a liquid medium, many new shoots will develop from a single shoot tip. when these are removed more shoots form which are genetically identical.

Q 53. What are clonal plants?
Ans. The shoots which develop by meristem culture are genetically identical the adult plants that develop from them are called clonal plants because all have the same traits.

Q 54. What are somaclonal variations?
Ans.
Plants generated from the somatic embryos vary somewhat because of mutations that arise during the production process. These variations are called somaclonal variations.

Q 55. What is Anther culture technique?
Ans.
In this technique mature anthers are cultured in a medium containing vitamins and growth regulators.

Q 56. What is cell suspension culture technique?
Ans.
In this technique, first of all rapidly growing cultures are cut into small pieces and shaken in a liquid nutrient medium so that single cells or small clumps of cells break off and form a suspension. These cells will produce the same chemicals as the entire plant.

Q 57. Define hybridization. What was its use?
Ans.
Hybridization is the crossing of different varieties of plants or even species. It was used to produce plants or even species. It was used to produce plants with desirable traits. Hybridization, followed by vegetative propagation of the mature plants, generated a large number of identical plants with these traits.

Q 58. What is luciferase and luciferin?
Ans.
The luciferase is firefly enzyme whose gene was inserted into tobacco protoplast and the adult plants glowed when sprayed with the substrate luciferin.

Q 59. What is Agrobacterium?
Ans.
Foreign DNA is inserted into the plasmid of the bacterium, Agrobacterium; which normally infects the plant cells.

Q 60. What is particle gun?
Ans.
In 1987, John C Sanford and Theodore M. Klein developed a method of introducing DNA into a plant tissue - culture callus. They constructed a device, called the particle gun that bombards a callus with DNA - coated microscopic metal particles. Then genetically altered somatic embryos develop into genetically adult plants.

Q 61. Name some plants which have been made resistant to insect predation and herbicides?
Ans.
Cotton, corn, potato and soybean plants.

Q 62. What is Arabidopsis?
Ans.
Arabidopsis is salt tolerant plant which have been developed by genetic engineers.

Q 63. Why a team of Japanese scientists are working on introducing the C4 photosynthetic cycle into rice?
Ans.
It is because C4 plants do well in hot dry weather.

Written by: Usman Rashid & Asad Hussain

FSc Notes Biology Part 2 Chapter 22 Variation and Genetics Short Questions

FSc Notes Biology Part 2 Chapter 22 Variation and Genetics Short Questions


Q 1. What is the difference between phenotype and genotype?
Ans. Phenotype is the form of appearance of a trait. Genotype is the genetic complement i.e., the genes in an individual for a particular trait.

Q 2. Define population?
Ans. Any group of sexually interbreeding organisms of the same species that exist together in both time and space is called population.

Q 3. What is the product rule?
Ans. When two independent events are occurring simultaneously like in /dihybird cross, the ratio of each joint phenotype combination can be obtained by multiplying the probabilities of individual phenotypes. It is called product rule.

Q 4. Name difference types of dominance relations among alleles?
Ans. There are four types of dominance relations among alleles, each indicating a different style of their functional effects upon each other.
     1. Complete dominance.    2. Incomplete dominance.
     3. Condominance.             4. Over dominance.

Q 5. Who discovered ABO blood group?
Ans. Karl Landsteiner discovered ABO group system in 1901.

Q 6. What epistasis?
Ans. When an effect caused by a gene or gene pair at one locus interferes with or hides the effect caused by another gene or gene pair at another locus, such a phenomenon of gene interaction is called epistasis.

Q 7. What are polygenetic traits?
Ans. A continuously varying trait is encoded by alleles of two or more different gene pairs found at different loci, all influencing the same trait in an additive way. These quantitative traits are called polygenetic traits, and their genes or polygenes.

Q 8. What is Cross over or recombinant frequency?
Ans. It is the proportion of recombinant types between two genes pairs as compared to the sum of all combinations.

                      Recombinant Frequency = Recombinant types / Sum of all combinations * 100

Q 9. Name the organism that lack sex chromosomes?
Ans. Many species of eukaryotic microorganisms like yeast do not have sex chromosome.

Q 10. Which one is true colour blindess: monochromacy or dichromacy?
Ans. Monochromacy is true colour blindess.

Q 11. How and why did Mendelian factors behave like chromosomes?
Ans. Mendelian factors behave like chromosomes because these factors (now called genes) are located on the chromosomes or in other words they are the part of chromosomes.

Q 12. How sexual dimorphism is exhibited in Drosophila?
Ans. Male and female Drosophila shows sexual dimorphism i.e., these are morphologically distinct from each other. Male is smaller in size with black rounded abdomen. Female is larger with pointed abdomen. Male has sex combs on front legs.

Q 13. Differentiate between Gene and genome?
Ans. Gene is the basic unit of biological information. Hereditary characteristics pass from parents to offspring through genes in their gametes. The genetic materials of an organism is the genome.

Q 14. What are genes and alleles?
Ans. Gene is the basic unit of biological information. Genes are actually parts of DNA comprising its base sequences. An allele is a member of the gene pair.

Q 15. Differentiate between Monohybrid and dihybrid?
Ans. A hybrid for a single trait under consideration is said to be monohybrid while a hybrid for two traits under consideration is called dihybrid.

Q 16. Differentiate between Homozygous and heterozygous?
Ans. When both the alleles of a gene pair in an organism are some, the organism is homozygous for that gene pair e.g., 'RR' or 'rr' When the two alleles of a gene pair in an organism are different, the organism is heterozygous for that gene pair e.g., 'Rr'.

Q 17. Differentiate between Dominance and epistasis?
Ans. Dominance is a physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele on the same gene locus.
When an effect caused by a gene or gene pair at one locus interferes with or hides the effect caused by another gene or gene pair at another locus, such a phenomenon of gene interaction is called epistasis.

Q 18. Differentiate between Autosome and sex chromosome?
Ans. All chromosomes other than sex-chromosomes are called autosomes. X and Y chromosomes are called sex-chromosomes because these have genes for determination of sex.

Q 19. Differentiate between Allele and multiple allele?
Ans. Partners of a gene pair are called alleles. Each allele of a gene pair occupies the same gene locus on its respective homologous i.e., RR or Rr etc.

Q 20. Differentiate between Sex limited and sex influenced trait?
Ans. A sex-limited trait is limited to only one sex sue to anatomical differences e.g., beard growth in humans is limited to men. Sex influenced trait occurs in both males and females but it is more common in one sex. Pattern baldness is a sex influenced trait that is more common in men.

Q 21. Differentiate between Incomplete dominance and codominance?
Ans. "When the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between phenotypes of the two homozygotes, it is called incomplete or partial dominance e.g., 4 O'clock pink flower.
Different alleles of a gene that are both expressed in a heterozygous condition are called codominant and the phenomenon is called codominance e.g., MN blood type.

Q 22. Differentiate between Dominant and recessive trait?
Ans. A trait that appears in a hybrid between two true breeding varieties is called dominant trait while a trait that is suppressed or masked in a hybrid between two true breeding varieties, it is said to be recessive.

Q 23. Differentiate between Continuous and discontinuous variations?
Ans. Some traits show more than two qualitatively different phenotypes, this is called continuous variations e.g., wheat grain colors, human height; skin colour and intelligence. There are many traits which have only two sharply defined phenotype, this is called discontinuous variation e.g., height, colour, shape in pea plant as studied by Mendel.

Q 24. Differentiate between Wild type and mutant?
Ans. An organism with normally existing traits (present in majority of the individuals of the population) is called wild type while an organism with a trait developed due to mutation is said to be mutant.

Q 25. What is a gene pool?
Ans. All the genes / alleles found in a breeding population at a given time are collectively called the gene pool. It is the total genetic information encoded in the total genes in a breeding population existing at given time.

Q 26. What  pea a lucky choice for Mendel? What would have happened if he had studied an eight character?
Ans. Yes, pea was a lucky choice for Mendel as he studied seven traits and pea plant has seven pairs of chromosomes. The genes of these traits were luckily located on separate chromosomes so he found independent assortment. If he had studied the eight character, he might encountered with deviation from independent assortment.

Q 27. What is a test cross? Why did Mednel devise this cross?
Ans. Test cross is a mating in which an individual showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual showing its recessive phenotype. This cross finds out the homozygous or heterozygous nature of the genotype. Mendel devised a cross to test the genotype of an individual showing a dominant phenotype.

Q 28. What would happen if alleles of a pair do not segregate at meiosis? How would it affect the purity of gamete?
Ans. If alleles of a pair do not segregate at meiosis, some gametes have an extra chromosome while others would lack one chromosome. This process is called non-disjunction. This phenomenon disturbs the purity of gametes according to which each gamete should received only one of the two alleles.

Q 29. If the alleles do not assort independently, which type of combination is missing in the progency?
Ans. The recombination would be missing in the progency.

Q 30. Why each gamete had equal chance of getting one or the other allele of a pair?
Ans. It is because of meiosis and segregation.

Q 31. Does the dominant allele modify the determinative nature of its recessive partner? What sort of relationship do they have?
Ans. The dominant allele does not modify the determinative nature of its recessive partner. Dominance is a physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele on the same locus. When one allele is completely dominant over the other, presence of recessive allele is functionally hidden. So the heterozygote has the same phenotype as homozygote.

Q 32. Which type of traits can assort independently?
Ans. The traits located on different chromosomes can assort independently.

Q 33. Why does the blood group phenotype of a person remain constant through out life?
Ans. The blood group phenotype is controlled by genes which will never change or mutate during the life time of a person so blood group phenotype remains throughout the life.

Q 34. What is a universal blood donor?
Ans. O blood group individuals are called universal donors. Phenotype O can also be sued as donor for small transfusions to A, B and AB recipients because donor's antibodies are quickly absorbed by other tissues or greatly diluted in the recipient's blood stream.

Q 35. How can ABO - incompatibility protect the baby against Rh - incompatibility?
Ans. Sometimes a mild ABO incompatibility protects the baby against more severe Rh incompatibility. If O' mother conceives A' or B' baby, any foetal A or B type RBC entering the mother's blood are quickly destroyed by her anti - A or anti - B antibodies, before she can form anti - Rh antibodies.

Q 36. Which types of genes do not obey law of independent assortment?
Ans. The genes located on the same chromosome do not obey law of independent.

Q 37. How can linked genes be separated from each other?
Ans. The linked genes can be separated from each other by crossing over.

Q 38. What is multifactorial inheritance?
Ans. The inheritance of trait which is controlled by several genes and is affected by environmental factors as well as is called multifactorial (polygenic with environmental influence) inheritance.

Q 39. What is MODY?
Ans. About 2% - 5% of type II diabetes get the disease early in life, before 25 years of age. It is called maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY). MODY can be inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. About 50% of cases of MODY are caused by mutations in glucokinase gene.

Q 40. Can a child have more intelligence (IQ score) than his parents?
Ans. Yes, a child may have more intelligence (IQ score) than his parents.

Q 41. What is Locus?
Ans. The position of a gene on the chromosome is called its locus.

Q 42. What are Alleles?
Ans. Partners of a gene pair are called alleles. Each allele of a gene pair occupies the same gene locus on its respective homolgue. Both alleles on one locus may be identical, or different from each other.

Q 43. Why Mendel is famous for?
Ans. Gregor Johann Mendel laid the foundation of classical genetics by formulating two laws of heredity; law of segregation and law of independent assortment.

Q 44. Define Mendel's law of segregation (law of purity of gamete)?
Ans. According to law of segregation, the two coexisting alleles for each trait in an individual segregate (separate) from each other, so that each gamete receives only one of the two alleles.

Q 45. What is Punnett square?
Ans. Punnett square is a checker box in which male gametes are put on one side and female gametes on the other side and their combined results are placed in corresponding boxes to get the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the next generations.

Q 46. Define Mendel's Law of independent Assortment or simultaneous inheritance of two traits?
Ans. Mendel formulated Law of Independent Assortment: "When two contrasting pairs of traits are followed in the same cross, their alleles assort independently into gametes."

Q 47. What is Linkage group?
Ans. All the genes present on a homologous pair of chromosome are linked to each other in the form of linkage group. These cannot assort independently.

Q 48. What is Over dominance?
Ans. In this case the over dominant heterozygote exceeds in quantity the phenotypic expression of both the homozygotes.

Q 49. Who discovered ABO blood group?
Ans. ABO blood group system (the first multiple allelic system) was discovered by Karl Landsteiner in 1901.

Q 50. Why Berstein is famous for?
Ans. Berstein explained the genetic basis of ABO system in 1925.

Q 51. What is antigen is produced by allele IA, IB and i?
Ans. Allele IA specifies production of antigen A, and allele IB specifies production of antigen B, but allele i does not specify any antigen.

Q 52. What phenotypes would be produced by the following genotypes: IAIA, IAi, IBi and ii in ABO blood system?
Ans. IAIA or IAi genotypes will produced phenotype A. Similarly IBIB or IBi produces phenotype B. The homozygoous ii will produce phenotype O.

Q 53. Why blood group phenotype never changes?
Ans. The blood group alleles start their expression at early embryonic stage and keep on expressing themselves till death. Therefore the blood group phenotype of a persons never changes throughout life.

Q 54. Name the anti-bodies found in blood serum of phenotype A, B AB and O?
Ans. The blood serum of a phenotype contains anti-B antibodies. B phenotype contains anti-A antibodies. Phenotypes AB has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in the serum. The serum of O blood type contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Q 55. What is antiserum?
Ans. The blood serum containing antibodies is called antiserum.

Q 56. Why phenotype O is called universal donor?
Ans. Phenotype O can be used as donor for small transfusions to A, B and AB recipients because donor's antibodies are quickly absorbed by other tissues or greatly diluted in the recipient's blood stream. So O blood group individuals are called universal donors.

Q 57. Why AB blood group individuals are called universal recipients?
Ans. AB blood group individuals are called universal recipients because they can received transfusions of blood from any of the four blood groups.

Q 58. What is Rh - Blood group system?
Ans. Rh- blood group system is defined on the basis of Rh-factor present on the surface of RBC. This system is named Rh after Rhesus monkey, because its antigen was first discovered in it by Landsteiner.

Q 59. What is Erythroblastosis foetalis (Meternal - foetal Rh incompatibility)?
Ans. When Rh mother's anti - Rh antibodies seep through placenta into blood circulation of Rh foetus, they start haemolysis (break down / bursting) of RBC of foetus. This condition is called Erythroblastosis foetails. As this destruction continuous, the foetus becomes anaemic.

Q 60. Why erythroblastosis foetalis is called so?
Ans. The anaemic foetus starts to release many immature erythroblasts into his blood stream. That is why this haemolytic disease of the new born is called erythroblastosis foetalis.

Q 61. What is Bombay phenotype?
Ans. They are phenotypically like O, but are not genotypically O. Their RBC lack A and B antigens although they do not lack IA and IB genes.

Q 62. Define pleiotropy?
Ans. When a single gene affects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called pleiotropy. Such a gene with multiple phenotypic effects is called pleiotropic.

Q 63. What does happen when a cat gets W allele?
Ans. Its melanocytes fails to develop properly. melanocyte failure causes both pheontypes, i.e., white fur and deafness.

Q 64. What are two aspects of phenotypic expression of traits?
Ans. Pheonotypic expression of traits has two aspects:
     i) Qualitative.   ii) Quantitative.

Q 65. What environmental factors affect the grain colour in wheat?
Ans. Environmental factors like light, water and nutrients also influence the amount of grain colour.

Q 66. What do you know about the tallness and shortness in humans?
Ans. Tallness in human is recessive to shortness. More the number of dominant alleles for shortness, the shorter the height will be. Similarly greater the number of recessive alleles for tallness, the taller the height will be.

Q 67. What is gene linkage?
Ans. The phenomenon of staying together of all the genes of a chromosome is called linkage.

Q 68. Define crossing over?
Ans. Crossing over is an exchange of segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Q 69. How many pairs of sex and autosome chromosomes are present in humans?
Ans. 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex-chromosomes are found in humans.

Q 70. What is SRY?
Ans. SRY is the male determining gene. It is located at the tip of short arm of Y-chromosome. Its name SRY stands for "Sex determining regions of Y".

Q 71. What do you know about chromosome number of Grasshopper?
Ans. The female has 24 chromosomes in the form of 11 pairs of autosomes and a pair of X-chromosomes. But the male grasshopper has 23 chromosomes having 11 pairs of autosomes and only one X chromosome. Thus male is XO and female is XX.

Q 72. Differentiate between homogametic and heterogametic individuals?
Ans. If an individual has two similar types of sex chromosomes it is said to be homogentic e.g., human females is XX. Similarly if an individual has two different types of sex chromosomes or only X is present, it is said to be geterogametic e.g., human male is XY or male grasshopper is XO.

Q 73. What is nullo gamete?
Ans. A gametes without any sex chromosome is called nullo gamete. For example in male grasshopper half of the gametes are nullo gametes.

Q 74. Which animals show XX - XY type or WZ - ZZ type of sex determination?
Ans. This type of sex - determination pattern is common in birds, butterflies and moths. It was discovered by J. Seiler in 1914 in moth.

Q 75. Compare XXY individuals in humans and Drosophila?
Ans. XXY individual produced through non disjunctional gametes in humans is a sterile male called Klinefelter's syndrome, but the same XXY set of chromosomes in Drosphila produces a fertile female.

Q 76. What is X:A ratio for females and males?
Ans. An X : A ratio of 1.00 or higher produces females whereas an X : A ratio of 0.5 or lower produces males.

Q 77. Differentiate between monoecious and dioecious plants?
Ans. Most plants have both male and female sex organs on the same plant and are said to be monoecious while some species like Ginkgo are dioecious having plants of separate sexes. Male plants produce flowers with only stamens and female plants produce flowers with only carpels.

Q 78. Why Correns is famous for?
Ans. Correns (1907) discovered the pollen of certain plants were sex-determining.

Q 79. Why T.H. Morgan is famous for?
Ans. Thomas Hunt Morgan (1910) provided experimental in support of chromosomal theory of heredity through discovery of sex linkage in fruit fly Drosophila.

Q 80. Why single recessive allele on X chromosome can express itself in males?
Ans. It is because Y chromosome is empty for that gene. Males are hemizygous as they carry just one allele on their X chromosome.

Q 81. What are Sex-linked and X-linked traits?
Ans. A trait whose gene is present on X chromosome is called X-linked trait. X-linked traits are commonly referred to as sex-linked traits.

Q 82. What is the Pattern of sex-linked inheritance?
Ans. An X - linked trait passes in a crisscross fashion from maternal grandfather (P1) through his daughter (F1) to the grandson (F2). It never passes direct from father to son because a son inherits only Y chromosome from father.

Q 83. What are Y-linked genes?
Ans. Y chromosome does carry a few genes which have no counterpart on X chromosome. Such genes are called Y-linked genes and their traits are called Y-linked traits e.g., SRY gene.

Q 84. What are X - and Y - genes?
Ans. Some genes like bobbed gene in Drosophila are present on X and Y both. These are called X - and Y - linked genes.

Q 85. Why X - and - Y linked genes are called pseudoautosomal?
Ans. It is because their pattern of inheritance is like autosomal genes.

Q 86. What are X - linked dominant and recessive traits?
Ans. Human have many X - linked traits of which some like haemophilia and colour blindness are X - linked recessive traits while others, like hypophosphatemic or vitamin D resistant rickets are X - linked dominant traits.

Q 87. What is haemophilia?
Ans. Haemophilia is a rare X - linked recessive trait. Hemophiliac's blood fails to clot after an injury, because it has either a reduction or malfunction or complete absence of blood clotting factors.

Q 88. What are different types of haemophilia?
Ans. Haemophilia is of three types: A, B and C Haemophilia A and B are non - allelic recessive sex - linked, but haemophilia C is an autosomal recessive trait.

Q 89. What is the percentage of different types of haemophilia?
Ans. 80% hemophiliacs, suffers from haemophilia A due to abnormality of factor VIII, about 20% suffer from haemophilia B due to disturbance in factor, IX, but less than 1% suffer from haemophilia C due to reduction in factor XI.

Q 90. Which type of haemophilia affect men more than women?
Ans. Being X - linked recessives, haemophilia A and B affect men more than women, but haemophilia C affects both the sexes equally because it is autosomal.

Q 91. When a woman can suffer from haemophilia A or B?
Ans. A woman can suffer from haemophilia A or B only when she is homozygous for the recessive allele.

Q 92. What is the pattern of inheritance of haemophilia?
Ans. Haemophilia A and B zigzag from maternal grandfather through a carrier daughter to a grandson. It never passes direct from father to son.

Q 93. What are opsins?
Ans. Each type of cone cell has specific light absorbing proteins called opsins. The genes for red and green opsins are on X chromosome, while the gene for blue opsins is present on autosome 7.

Q 94. What is dichromat? What are different types of dichromatic blindness?
Ans. A dichromat can perceive two primary colours but is unable to perceive the one whose opsins are missing due to mutation?
     i) Protanopia.   ii) Deuteranopia.   iii) Tritanopia.

Q 95. Differentiate between protanopia deuteranopia and tritanopia?
Ans. i) Protanopia is red colour blindness.
    ii) Deuteranopia is green colour blindness.
   iii) Tritanopia is blue colour blindness.

Q 96. What are protanomalous and deuteranomalous?
Ans. Some people can detect red and green but with altered perception of the relative shades of these colours (i.e., they can see red instead of green and vice versa). They have abnormal but still partially functional opsins. They are protanomalous and deuteranomalous respectively.

Q 97. What is Monochromacy?
Ans. A monochromat can perceive only one colour. Monochromacy is true colour blindness.

Q 98. What is Blue cone monochromacy?
Ans. Blue cone monochromacy is an X - linked recessive trait in which both red and green cone cells are absent. That is why it is also called red - green colours blindness.

Q 99. Why red-green colour blindness is more common in men than women?
Ans. It is because chances for a male to be affected by it are double than a female as Y chromosome has no alternate gene.

Q 100. What is the pattern of X - linked dominant inheritance?
Ans. It is more common in females than males. all daughters of an affected father are affected, but none of his sons are affected. Any heterozygous affected mother will pass the trait equally to half of her sons and half of her daughters. hypophosphatemic rickets is an X - linked dominant trait.

Q 101. What is the pattern of Y - Linked inheritance?
Ans. Y - linked trait passes through Y - chromosome from father to son only. Such traits cannot pass to daughters because they do not inherit Y - chromosome. All sons of an affected father are affected by a Y - linked traits. 'SRY' gene on Y chromosome determines maleness in man.

Q 102. What are sex limited traits?
Ans. A sex-limited trait is limited to only one sex due to anatomical difference. Such traits affects a structure or function of the body present in only males or only females. These traits may be controlled by sex-linked or autosomal genes.

Q 103. What are sex-influenced traits?
Ans. Sex influenced trait occurs in both males and females but it is more common in one sex. It is controlled by an allele that is expressed as dominant in one sex but recessive in the other. This difference in expression is due to hormonal difference e.g., Pattern baldness.

Q 104. A man is 45 years old and bald. His wife also has pattern baldness. What is the risk that their son will lose his hair?
Ans. The son has 100% chance to lose hair.

Q 105. what is Diabetes mellitus?
Ans. Diabetes mellitus is a hereditary disease, characterized by high blood sugar level. Diabetics pass glucose in their urine.

Q 106. What are effected of diabetes?
Ans. Diabetes is the leading cause of kidney failure, adult blindness, lower limb amputation and heart disease.

Q 107. What is Type I diabetes or IDDM or insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
Ans. Type I diabetes is also called Juvenile diabetes because it usually occurs in early age before 40. It arises due to deficiency of pancreatic hormone insulin that normally routes blood glucose to cells for use. Diabetics of type I must receive oxygenous (from outside source) insulin to survive.

Q 108. What is Type II diabetes or NIDDM or non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
Ans. Diabetes mellitus type II accounts for 90% of all diabetic patients. These persons produced some endogenous insulin themselves, but their body cells gradually fail to respond to insulin and cannot take up glucose from blood. It occurs among people over age 40. and is more common among the obese (very fat).

Written by: Usman Rashid & Asad Hussain